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ADEX CSCE OSCE Exam - Edition 100 Actual Exam Questions with 100% Ver...

Exam (elaborations) Dec 14, 2025 ★★★★★ (5.0/5)
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ADEX CSCE OSCE Exam | / Edition

100 Actual Exam Questions with 100% Verified Answers | Graded A+ | Updated to the Latest Clinical Standards Introduction This resource provides 100 verified and up-to-date questions from the ADEX CSCE OSCE Exam, tailored to reflect the . Each item has been carefully reviewed for accuracy and alignment with clinical expectations, ensuring candidates are fully prepared for OSCE-style assessments and success in dental hygiene licensure.Answer Format All correct answers are clearly marked in bold and green to enhance learning efficiency and review speed.ADEX CSCE OSCE Exam – Question 1 (Multiple-Choice): A patient presents with a white patch on the buccal mucosa that does not wipe off. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Candidiasis
  • Leukoplakia
  • Lichen planus
  • Aphthous ulcer
  • Rationale: Leukoplakia is a white patch that cannot be wiped off and requires further evaluation for malignancy.Question 2 (Multiple-Choice): A radiograph shows a radiopaque lesion at the apex of tooth #8. What is the most likely cause?

  • Caries
  • Periapical pathology
  • Enamel hypoplasia
  • Dentinogenesis imperfecta
  • Rationale: A radiopaque lesion at the apex suggests periapical pathology, such as a granuloma or cyst.Question 3 (Multiple-Choice): A patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta- blocker. Which oral side effect should be monitored?

  • Gingival hyperplasia
  • Xerostomia
  • Tooth discoloration
  • Oral candidiasis

Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause dry mouth, increasing caries risk.

Question 4 (Fill-in-the-Blank): A patient’s blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg. What is the dental hygiene management recommendation?Answer: Refer to a physician before treatment 1 / 3

Rationale: Blood pressure above 160/100 indicates hypertension requiring medical evaluation.Question 5 (Multiple-Choice): A patient has generalized 4–5 mm probing depths with bleeding. What is the most appropriate treatment?

  • Fluoride varnish
  • Scaling and root planing
  • Amalgam restoration
  • Sealant placement
  • Rationale: Scaling and root planing address periodontal disease with bleeding and moderate probing depths.Question 6 (Hot Spot): Identify the carious lesion on a bitewing radiograph of tooth #19.

Answer: Mesial surface, dentin involvement

Rationale: Bitewing radiographs detect interproximal caries, with dentin involvement indicating advanced decay.Question 7 (Multiple-Choice): A patient with diabetes reports frequent oral infections. What is the likely cause?

  • Poor oral hygiene only
  • Impaired immune response
  • Excessive fluoride use
  • Allergic reaction

Rationale: Diabetes impairs immune function, increasing infection risk.

Question 8 (Multiple-Choice): What is the first action during a medical emergency involving syncope in the dental chair?

  • Administer epinephrine
  • Place patient in Trendelenburg position
  • Provide oxygen at 10 L/min
  • Call 911 immediately

Rationale: Trendelenburg position improves cerebral blood flow in syncope.

Question 9 (Multiple-Choice): A patient with a penicillin allergy is prescribed an antibiotic for a dental infection. Which is appropriate?

  • Amoxicillin
  • Clindamycin
  • Penicillin VK
  • Cephalexin

Rationale: Clindamycin is safe for penicillin-allergic patients.

Question 10 (Drag-and-Drop): Sequence the steps for scaling and root planing.

Answer: 1. Assess periodontal status, 2. Administer local anesthesia, 3. Perform scaling, 4.Perform root planing, 5. Provide post-op instructions Rationale: This sequence ensures thorough periodontal treatment and patient education.Question 11 (Multiple-Choice): A patient’s intraoral exam reveals a red, velvety lesion on the tongue. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Geographic tongue
  • Erythroplakia 2 / 3
  • Candidiasis
  • Traumatic ulcer

Rationale: Erythroplakia is a red lesion with high malignant potential.

Question 12 (Multiple-Choice): A patient is taking warfarin. Which lab value should be checked before invasive procedures?

  • Platelet count

B) INR

  • Hemoglobin
  • Blood glucose

Rationale: INR monitors warfarin’s anticoagulant effect.

Question 13 (Multiple-Choice): A panoramic radiograph shows a unilocular radiolucency near tooth #27. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Ameloblastoma
  • Periapical cyst
  • Dentigerous cyst
  • Odontoma
  • Rationale: A unilocular radiolucency near a tooth apex suggests a periapical cyst.Question 14 (Multiple-Choice): A patient with asthma experiences wheezing during treatment. What is the first action?

  • Continue treatment
  • Administer albuterol
  • Call 911
  • Place in supine position

Rationale: Albuterol relieves acute asthma symptoms.

Question 15 (Extended Match): Match the periodontal instrument to its use:

  • Gracey curette – Root planing
  • Sickle scaler – Supragingival calculus removal
  • Explorer – Caries detection
  • Periodontal probe – Measure pocket depth

Rationale: Each instrument has a specific clinical purpose.

Question 16 (Multiple-Choice): A patient reports burning mouth syndrome. Which

condition should be ruled out?

  • Caries
  • Vitamin B12 deficiency
  • Periodontitis
  • Fluorosis

Rationale: Vitamin deficiencies can cause burning mouth symptoms.

Question 17 (Multiple-Choice): What is the recommended frequency for bitewing

radiographs in a high-caries-risk patient?

  • Every 2 years
  • Every 6–12 months
  • Every 3 years
  • Once every 5 years
  • Rationale: High-caries-risk patients require frequent monitoring.

  • / 3

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