Appendicitis NCLEX EXAM-

Appendicitis NCLEX EXAM- with 100% verified answers- 2022

The nurse would increase the comfort of the patient with appendicitis by:

"a. Having the patient lie prone

• Flexing the patient's right knee
• Sitting the patient upright in a chair
• Turning the patient onto his or her left side Correct AnswerCorrect answer: B"

The patient with appendicitis usually prefers to lie still, often with the right leg flexed to decrease pain.

"The nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department with complaints of acute abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. When the nurse palpates the patient's left lower abdominal quadrant, the patient complains of pain in the right lower quadrant. The nurse will document this as which of the following diagnostic signs of appendicitis?"a. Rovsing sign

• referred pain
• Chvostek's sign
• rebound tenderness

correct answer: A" Correct AnswerAnswer A

In patients with suspected appendicitis, Rovsing sign may be elicited by palpation of the left lower quadrant, causing pain to be felt in the right lower quadrant.

Which of the following position should the client with appendicitis assume to relieve pain ?

• Prone B. Sitting C. Supine D. Lying with legs drawn up Correct AnswerCorrect Answer: D Lying still

with legs drawn up towards chest helps relive tension on the abdominal muscle, which helps to reduce the amount of discomfort felt. Lying flat or sitting may increase the amount of pain experienced

"When evaluating a male client for complications of acute pancreatitis, the nurse would observe for: "a. increased intracranial pressure.

• decreased urine output.
• bradycardia.

d. hypertension." Correct AnswerCorrect Answer: B

Rationale: Acute pancreatitis can cause decreased urine output, which results from the renal failure that sometimes accompanies this condition. Intracranial pressure neither increases nor decreases in a client with pancreatitis. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, usually is associated with pulmonary or hypovolemic complications of pancreatitis. Hypotension can be caused by a hypovolemic complication, but hypertension usually isn't related to acute pancreatitis."

"When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?"a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture.

• Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of

the appendix.

• The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client.
• Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage."

Correct AnswerAnswer B. A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion.Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture.

"A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute appendicitis. When assessing the abdomen, the nurse would expect to find rebound tenderness at which location?

a) Left lower quadrant

b) Left upper quadrant

c) Right upper quadrant

d) Right lower quadrant Correct AnswerCorrect answer: d) Right lower quadrant"

Rationale: The pain of acute appendicitis localizes in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) at McBurney's point, an area midway between the umbilicus and the right iliac crest. Often, the pain is worse when manual pressure near the region is suddenly released, a condition called rebound tenderness.

The nurse is monitoring a client diagnosed with appendicitis who is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and begns to vomit. On assessment, the nurse notes that the abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which is the appropriate nursing intervention? "1. Notify the Physician

• Administer the prescribed pain medication
• Call and ask the operating room team to perform the surgery as soon as possible
• Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on warm setting to the client's abdomen Correct

AnswerCORRECT ANSWER: 1"

"1. Based on the assessment information the nurse should suspect peritonitis, a complication that is associated with appendicitis, and notify the physician.

• Administering pain medication is not an appropriate intervention
• Scheduling surgical time is not within the scope of practice of an RN.
• Heat should never be applied to the abdomen of a patient suspected of having peritonitis because of

the risk of rupture."

A client is admitted with right lower quadrant pain, anorexia, nausea, low-grade fever, and elevated white blood cell count. Which complication is most likely the cause? 1. A. fecalith 2. Bowel Kinking 3.Internal blowel occlusion 4. Abdominal wall swelling Correct Answer"Answer 1 Rational: The client is experiencing appendicitis. A. fecalith is a fecal calculus, or stone, that occludes the lumen of the appendix and is the most common cause of appendicitis. Bowel wall swelling, kinking of the appendix, and external occlusion not internal occlusion, of the bowel by adhesions can also be cause of appendicitis."

"When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?"a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture.

• Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of

the appendix.

• The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client.
• Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage."

Correct AnswerCorrect B A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion. Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture."

"A client with acute appendicitis develops a fever, tachycardia, and hypotension. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse should further assess the client for which of the following complications?..."1. Deficient fluid volume.

• Intestinal obstruction.
• Bowel ischemia.
• Peritonitis Correct AnswerCorrect 4

"Complications of acute appendicitis are perforation, peritonitis, and abscess development. Signs of the development of peritonitis include abdominal pain and distention, tachycardia, tachypnea, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Because peritonitis can cause hypovolemic shock, hypotension can develop. Deficient fluid volume would not cause a fever. Intestinal obstruction would cause abdominal distention, diminished or absent bowel sounds, and abdominal pain. Bowel ischemia has signs and symptoms similar to those found with intestinal obstruction."

"When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?

• Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture.
• Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of

the appendix.

• The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client.
• Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage."

Correct AnswerAnswer B. A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with

venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion.Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture.

The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis who is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On assessment, the nurse notes that the abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which is the appropriate nursing intervention? Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination 5th ed. 1. Notify the physician 2. Administer the prescribed pain medication 3.Call and ask the operating room team to perform the surgery as soon as possible 4. Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on warm setting to the clien't abdomen Correct AnswerCorrect 1 Based on the signs and symptoms presented in the question, the nurse shoudl suspect peritonitis and notify the physician. Administering pain medication is not an appropriate intervention. Heat should never be applied to the abdomen of a client wiht suspected appendicitis because of the risk of rupture.Scheduling surgical time is not within the scope of nursing practice, although the physician probably would perform the surgery earlier than the prescheduled time.

When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?"a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture.

• Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of

the appendix.

• The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client.
• Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage."

Correct AnswerAnswer B. A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion.Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture.

"The client diagnosed with appendicitis has undergone an appendectomy. At two hours postoperative, the nurse takes the vital signs and notes T 102.6 F, P 132, R 26, and BP 92/46. Which interventions should the nurse implement? List in order of priority.

• Increase the IV rate.
• Notify the health care provider.
• Elevate the foot of the bed.
• Check the abdominal dressing.
• Determine if the IV antibiotics have been administered. Correct AnswerOrder of priority: 1, 3, 4, 5, 2."

"1. The nurse should increase the IV rate to maintain the circulatory system function until further orders can be obtained.

• The foot of the bed should be elevated to help treat shock, the symptoms of which include elevated

pulse and decreased BP. Those signs and an elevated temperature indicate an infection may be present and the client could be developing septicemia.

• The dressing should be assessed to determine if bleeding is occurring.