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Class IV Practice Examination Questions

Study guide Jan 2, 2026 ★★★★☆ (4.0/5)
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Idaho Wastewater Treatment Operator Class IV Practice Examination Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf

Q1. What is the primary purpose of secondary treatment in a wastewater facility?

  • Removal of grit
  • Removal of heavy metals
  • Removal of biodegradable organic matter
  • Sludge thickening

Rationale: Secondary treatment focuses on biological oxidation of organic

matter measured as BOD.Q2. What does BOD primarily measure?

  • Nitrogen concentration
  • Chemical oxidation strength 1 / 4
  • Oxygen required for microbial degradation of organics
  • Suspended solids content

Rationale: BOD quantifies dissolved oxygen needed for microorganisms to

oxidize organic materials.

Q3. Nitrification is the biological conversion of:

  • Nitrate to nitrogen gas
  • Ammonia to nitrate
  • Nitrite to ammonia
  • Nitrogen gas to ammonia
  • Rationale: Nitrification occurs in two steps: ammonia → nitrite → nitrate.

Q4. The primary microorganisms responsible for nitrification are:

  • Protozoa
  • Nitrifying bacteria
  • Fungi
  • Anaerobic archaea

Rationale: Nitrifiers (Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter) oxidize ammonia and

nitrite.

Q5. The F/M ratio is defined as:

  • Food mass over facility maintenance
  • Pounds of BOD applied per pound of MLVSS
  • Flow rate divided by MLSS
  • Flow rate multiplied by BOD
  • Rationale: F/M compares loading to the mass of microorganisms. 2 / 4

Q6. Sludge bulking in activated sludge is commonly caused by:

  • High DO
  • Toxic influent
  • Excessive filamentous bacteria
  • Low solids retention time

Rationale: Filamentous organisms cause poor settling and bulking.

Q7. The purpose of anaerobic digestion is to:

  • Increase sludge volume
  • Convert nitrate to ammonia
  • Remove grit
  • Stabilize sludge by converting organics to methane and CO₂

Rationale: Anaerobic digestion reduces volatile solids and produces biogas.

Q8. The optimum DO level in an activated sludge aeration basin is:

  • 0.2 mg/L
  • 1–2 mg/L
  • 2–4 mg/L
  • 8 mg/L

Rationale: Most systems target 2–4 mg/L to support aerobic

microorganisms.

Q9. Chlorine disinfection effectiveness increases with:

  • Higher pH
  • Lower pH
  • Higher alkalinity 3 / 4
  • Lower temperature

Rationale: Hypochlorous acid (more effective) predominates at lower pH.

Q10. The primary function of a grit chamber is to remove:

  • Oils and greases
  • Heavy, inorganic particles
  • Dissolved solids
  • Settleable biomass

Rationale: Grit chambers remove sand, gravel, and similar materials.

Q11. Sludge age is also known as:

A. MLSS

B. F/M

  • Solids retention time
  • Sludge blanket depth

Rationale: Sludge age describes average time solids remain in the system.

Q12. The term MLVSS refers to:

  • Mineral volatile suspended solids
  • Volatile fraction of MLSS representing active biomass
  • Maximum liquid volume of sludge
  • Mineral load volume

Rationale: MLVSS indicates the active microbial mass.

Q13. A common cause of foaming in aerobic digesters is:

  • Low pH
  • Excessive grit
  • / 4

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Added: Jan 2, 2026
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Idaho Wastewater Treatment Operator Class IV Practice Examination Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf Q1. What is the primary purpose of...

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