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DEX IOT DAY TEST NEWEST ACTUAL
EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A
1. What is flatfoot (pes planus)?: Collapse of the medial longitudinal arch due
to progression degeneration of the Posterior tibial tendon. If left untreated the deformity can advance into arthritis in the joints associated in the midfoot and hindfoot leading to fusion.
2. What is the function of the Posterior tibial tendon (PTT)?: Maintain the
talonavicular joint at the apex of the three arches.
3. How does the foot change as the disorder progresses?: It becomes more
rigid.
4. What other structures can be damaged due to tendon dysfunction?:
Spring ligament, talocalcaneal ligaments, deltoid ligament, plantar fascia, and other soft-tissue structures.
- What is necessary for the development of the characteristic planovalgus
deformity of AAFD?: Failure of multiple stabilizers, depressed plantar-flexed
talus bone, hindfoot and/or midfoot valgus, and an everted flattened forefoot.
6. What are the commonly used metrics for the longitudinal arch?: Meary
angle (A), calcaneal inclination angle (B), and calcaneal-fifth metatarsal angle (C).
7. What is mearys angle?: Angle between the long axis of the talus and the
long axis of the first metatarsal
8. What is the calcaneal inclination angle: Angle between the line at the
plantar calc surface and the horizontal plane
9. What is calc-5th metatarsal angel: Angle between the line at the plantar
surface and the line at the inferior 5th met shaft
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- What are the standard Meary angle (A), calcaneal inclination angle (B),
and calcaneal-fifth metatarsal angle (C).: 0 (Parallel), 20 - 30, 150-165
11. What is hindfoot valgus?: Abnormal outward angulation of the hindfoot.
12. What is forefoot abduction?: Abnormal outward angulation of the forefoot.
13. What is the talocalcaneal angle (kite angle)?: Angle between the line
bisecting the head and neck of the talus and the line parallel to the lateral surface of the calcaneus
14. What is the talus first metatarsal alignment axis?: Line drawn along the
long axis of the talus, extended into the forefoot, its orientation compared with that of the first metatarsal shaft
- What is the talonavicular angle?: Angle between the articular surface of the
talar head and the articular surface of the proximal navicular bone
16 What are the normal values for talocalcaneal angle (kite angle), talus first metatarsal alignment, talonavicular angle?: >25 - 40, Talar axis angled slightly lateral to 1st met shaft, parallel (0).
- What starts the path towards flat foot deformity?: Swelling or slight tear of
the PTT (Posterior Tibial Tendon). This is not enough to lead to substantial deformity on its own
18. How does injury to a persons PTT lead to flat foot?: The injured PTT leads
to increased strain on the other stabilizers of the ankle. This all combined can then lead to noticeable predictable deformity
19. What are the other stabilizers affected by flatfoot deformity?: Spring
ligament and talocalcaneal ligaments.
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20. What are the symptoms of stage I AAFD?: Posteromedial ankle pain, PTT
tenderness, decreased endurance.
21. Is alignment or function of the foot altered in stage 1 AAFD?: No, there
may be some swelling in patients with tenosynovitis however
22. What is tenosynovitis?: Inflammation of a tendon and its synovial sheath
23. Is tendon length normal in stage I AAFD?: Yes.
24. What is the treatment for stage I AAFD?: Conservative treatment with
medications, injections, and physical therapy.
25. When is tenosynovectomy needed for stage I AAFD?: For recalcitrant
disease.
26. What characterizes stage II AAFD?: Flexible deformity with diminished
space below the arch while weight bearing
27. What are the functional impairments in stage II AAFD?: Weakness of
inversion and inability to perform single-leg heel rise.
28. How is the single leg heel raise test for stage II AAFD performed?: Patient
stands on toes, first on both feet and then on a single foot.
- What do you see during the single leg heel raise test that confirms flat
foot?: Normally, the heel swings into varus position as it rises; when the PTT
is insufficient, the heel fails to invert or the patient is unable to perform the maneuver.
30. What happens to the heel in stage II disease during the test?: Heel fails
to invert or the patient is unable to perform the maneuver.
31. What is the rotational deformity in stage II disease?: Hindfoot and heel
valgus, mild in early stage II.
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32. What is the 'too many toes' sign in stage II disease?: Visualization of
more than one lateral toe from behind during weight bearing.
33. What are the three types of procedures for stage II disease?: Soft tissue,
bone, or both.
34 When are posterior tibial tendon débridement and reattachment options?:
If the native tendon is functional and salvageable.
35. What are the staples of soft-tissue repair in stage II disease?: Tendon
transfers using flexor hallucis longus or flexor digitorum longus tendon.
36. What can the transferred tendon do in soft-tissue repair?: Work along with
a diseased PTT or replace a completely torn one.
37. What are other soft-tissue procedures for stage II disease?: Augmentation
of the spring ligament and/or lengthening of the Achilles tendon.
38. What is medializing calcaneal osteotomy?: A procedure used to treat
AAFD by restoring Achilles alignment. Not usually done alone
39. What is the goal of a medializing calcaneal osteotomy?: Restores Achilles
alignment medial to the subtalar axis, allowing it to function as a hindfoot inverter, relieving strain on the native or reconstructed medial structures.
40. What is subtalar hyperpronation?: Excessive inward rolling of the foot.
41. How can subtalar hyperpronation be addressed?: With placement of a
subtalar implant.
42. When is medial column stabilization surgery necessary?: When the talus
bone is substantially uncovered.
- What are the commonly used procedures for medial column stabilization
surgery?: Talonavicular, navicular-cuneiform, and/or first tarsometatarsal
arthrodesis. (Lapidus Procedure)
- What is fixed dorsiflexion of the first ray?: When the first toe is stuck in a
bent position.
45. How can fixed dorsiflexion of the first ray be remedied?: With an opening
wedge osteotomy.
46. What is the purpose of an opening wedge osteotomy?: To re-create the
medial arch.
47. What is AAFD?: Acquired Adult Flatfoot Deformity.
48. What is a cotton osteotomy?: Medial Cuneiform opening wedge osteotomy.
Helps to create an arch in the foot
49. What is an Evans osteotomy?: Lateral column lengthening procedure in the
calcaneus