HESI Pharmacology Exam Practice

HESI Pharmacology Exam Practice (NCLEX-PN) | 2025/2026 Latest Edition – Version 2 Real Exam-Based Questions and Verified Rationalized Answers | 100% Accuracy | Practical Nursing Pharmacology | Graded A+ Introduction This resource includes two full versions of the HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam tailored for the NCLEX-PN® 2025/2026 cycle. Each version contains 75+ multiple-choice questions covering medication classifications, dosage calculations, side effects, contraindications, and nursing implications. Content is aligned with current pharmacological standards and NCLEX-PN® blueprint requirements.Answer Format All correct answers are clearly marked in bold and green, each supported by concise rationales for improved clinical understanding and retention.

Version 2:

• A client is prescribed 250 mg of cefazolin IV. The vial contains 500

mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

• 0.5 mL
• 1 mL
• 1.5 mL
• 2 mL
• 0.5 mL

Rationale: 250 mg ÷ 500 mg/mL = 0.5 mL.

• A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. Which side effect

should the nurse teach the client to monitor for?

a) Peripheral edema

b) Hyperglycemia

c) Weight loss 1 / 3

d) Hyperkalemia

a) Peripheral edema

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema due to vasodilation.

• A client is to receive 800 mL of normal saline over 4 hours. What is the

IV flow rate in mL/hr?

• 150 mL/hr
• 200 mL/hr
• 250 mL/hr
• 300 mL/hr
• 200 mL/hr

Rationale: 800 mL ÷ 4 hours = 200 mL/hr.

• A client with a history of depression is prescribed sertraline. Which

instruction should the nurse include in client teaching?

a) Stop the medication if mood improves

b) Report signs of agitation

c) Take the medication on an empty stomach

d) Avoid monitoring for side effects

Serde: b) Report signs of agitation

Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, can cause agitation, a symptom of serotonin syndrome, which requires immediate reporting.

• A client is prescribed 15 mg of morphine PO. The tablets are 10 mg

each. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

• 1 tablet
• 1.5 tablets
• 2 tablets
• 2.5 tablets
• 1.5 tablets

Rationale: 15 mg ÷ 10 mg/tablet = 1.5 tablets.

• A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed bumetanide.

Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for? 2 / 3

a) Hyperkalemia

b) Hypokalemia

c) Hypernatremia

d) Hyponatremia

b) Hypokalemia

Rationale: Bumetanide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, leading to a risk of hypokalemia.

• A client is to receive 1000 mL of lactated Ringer’s over 5 hours. The IV

tubing has a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL. What is the flow rate in gtt/min?

• 32 gtt/min
• 33 gtt/min
• 34 gtt/min
• 35 gtt/min
• 33 gtt/min

Rationale: 1000 mL ÷ 5 hours = 200 mL/hr. 200 mL/hr ÷ 60 min ≈ 3.33 mL/min. 3.33 mL/min × 10 gtt/mL ≈ 33 gtt/min.

• A client with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glulisine. When

should the nurse administer this medication?

a) At bedtime

b) Immediately before meals

c) Every 6 hours

d) With breakfast only

b) Immediately before meals

Rationale: Insulin glulisine, a rapid-acting insulin, is administered just before meals to control postprandial glucose levels.

• A client is prescribed 50 mg of atenolol PO daily. The tablets are 25 mg

each. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

• 1 tablet
• 2 tablets
• 3 tablets
• 4 tablets
• / 3