NBEO Part 1 Exam Newest 2026-2027 Actual Exam

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NBEO PART 1 EXAM NEWEST 2026 -2027 ACTUAL

EXAM WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND

CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED

ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+

Question 1 A 32-year-old female is seen at your office complaining of a recent onset of blurred vision, only at a distance. A thorough case history reveals that she recently began taking a new medication which you correctly assume has induced myopia. Which of the following medications is MOST likely to be the culprit?A. Tums (calcium carbonate)

• Accutane (isotretinoin)
• Tylenol (acetaminophen)

D. Omega-3 fish oil capsules Correct Answer: B. Accutane (isotretinoin)

Explanation: Isotretinoin, birth control pills, and diuretics, among many other

drugs, can cause myopia in some patients. Myopia most likely results from corneal swelling, which steepens the curvature of the cornea. Drugs that cause swelling of the lens, accommodative spasm, or edema of the ciliary body will also result in myopia. A reduction in the dose of the medication or cessation of

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the offending drug will usually result in reversal of nearsightedness. Fish oil, Tylenol, and Tums have not been shown to have a correlation with transient myopia development.Question 2 An increased rate of molecular movement down its respective concentration gradient via help from carrier proteins refers to which type of transportation?

• Passive diffusion
• Active transport
• Facilitated diffusion

D. Group translocation Correct Answer: C. Facilitated diffusion

Explanation: Facilitated diffusion is described as the net movement of

molecules down its concentration gradient whose rate of diffusion is increased via the use of carrier proteins. Passive diffusion refers to the movement of molecules through a plasma membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration without the use of carrier molecules. Active transport implies the movement of material against its respective concentration gradient.This type of transport requires energy and enlists the use of specific carrier proteins. Lastly, group translocation is defined as the chemical modification of a molecule while it is being transported into a cell; for example, sugars are often phosphorylated during transportation. Question 3

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A 24-year-old female patient presents at your office complaining of side effects that began when she started using Patanol to treat her ocular allergies. She reports complete compliance with her eye drop administration. Which of the following symptoms is MOST likely associated with olopatadine (Patanol) use?

• Tachycardia
• Depression
• Headaches
• Gastrointestinal discomfort

E. Visual hallucinations Correct Answer: C. Headaches

Explanation: Topical antihistamines and mast cell stabilizers such as Patanol

(olopatadine) are commonly prescribed to relieve the symptoms associated with ocular allergies. They are a very effective class of medication due to their dual action mechanisms. Topical antihistamines that possess this dual action are olopatadine (Patanol), ketotifen fumarate (Zaditor), azelastine (Optivar), and epinastine (Elestat). The aforementioned drops serve to alleviate itching and redness by blocking H1 receptors as well as inhibiting mast cell and basophil degranulation. Side effects of topical antihistamine/mast cell stabilizers include stinging upon instillation, headaches, and adverse taste (don't forget to inform your patients about punctal occlusion!). Tachycardia, depression,

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gastrointestinal discomfort, and visual hallucinations have not been reported with Patanol use.Question 4 A 63-year-old female is seen at your office with a chief concern of blurry vision in the morning that takes about an hour to resolve before she can see clearly again. Biomicroscopy reveals endothelial guttata. You correctly diagnose her with moderate Fuchs' dystrophy. Which ophthalmic drop would be of MOST benefit to her?

• Topical steroids
• Sodium chloride (hyperosmotic agent)
• Tobramycin

D. VigamoxCorrect Answer: B. Sodium chloride (hyperosmotic agent)

Explanation: Sodium chloride is a topical hyperosmotic agent used to relieve

stromal edema caused by endothelial decompensation. Topical steroids work well to decrease swelling caused by inflammation. In the above case, the corneal edema is not mitigated by an inflammatory response. Tobramycin and Vigamox would be of no benefit since there is no active infection, and prescribing either of these would only lead to corneal toxicity or increased pathogen resistance over time.Question 5