Nclex Pn Test Practicequestions With Verified Solutions

Nclex Pn Test Practicequestions With Verified Solutions 2023 The client is admitted from the emergency room with multiple injuries sustained from an auto accident. His doctor prescribes a histamine

blocker. The reason for this order is:

A.To treat general discomfort B.To correct electrolyte imbalances C. To prevent stress ulcers

• To treat nausea

Answer C: Histamine blockers are frequently ordered for clients who are

hospitalized for prolonged periods and who are in a stressful situation.They are not used to treat discomfort, correct electrolytes, or treat nausea; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.The client with a recent liver transplant asks the nurse how long he will have to take cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which response is correct?A.1 year B.5 years C.10 years D.The rest of his life

Answer D: Cyclosporin is an immunosuppressant, and the client with a

liver transplant will be on immunosuppressants for the rest of his life.Answers A, B, and C, therefore, are incorrect.Shortly after the client was admitted to the postpartum unit, the nurse notes heavy lochia rubra with large clots. The nurse should

anticipate an order for:

A.Methergine B.Stadol C.Magnesium sulfate D.Phenergan 1 / 4

Answer A: Methergine is a drug that causes uterine contractions. It is used

for postpartal bleeding that is not controlled by Pitocin. Answers B, C, and D

are incorrect: Stadol is an analgesic; magnesium sulfate is used for

preeclampsia; and phenergan is an antiemetic.The client is scheduled to have an intravenous cholangiogram.

Before the procedure, the nurse should assess the patient for:

A.Shellfish allergies B.Reactions to blood transfusions C.Gallbladder disease D.Egg allergies

Answer A: Clients having dye procedures should be assessed for allergies

to iodine or shellfish. Answers B and D are incorrect because there is no need for the client to be assessed for reactions to blood or eggs. Because an IV cholangiogram is done to detect gallbladder disease, there is no need to ask about answer C.A new diabetic is learning to administer his insulin. He receives 10U of NPH and 12U of regular insulin each morning. Which of the following statements reflects understanding of the nurse’s teaching?A.“When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the regular insulin first.” B.“When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the NPH insulin first.” C.“It doesn’t matter which insulin I draw up first.” D.“I cannot mix the insulin, so I will need two shots.”

Answer A: Regular insulin should be drawn up before the NPH. They can be

given together, so there is no need for two injections, making answer D incorrect. Answer B is obviously incorrect, and answer C is incorrect

because it does matter which is drawn first: Contamination of NPH into

regular insulin will result in a hypoglycemic reaction at unexpected times.A client with osteomylitis has an order for a trough level to be done because he is taking Gentamycin. When should the nurse call the lab to obtain the trough level?A.Before the first dose 2 / 4

B.30 minutes before the fourth dose C.30 minutes after the first dose D.30 minutes after the fourth dose

Answer B: Trough levels are the lowest blood levels and should be done 30

minutes before the third IV dose or 30 minutes before the fourth IM dose.Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.A 4-year-old with cystic fibrosis has a prescription for Viokase pancreatic enzymes to prevent malabsorption. The correct time to

give pancreatic enzyme is:

A.1 hour before meals B.2 hours after meals C.With each meal and snack D.On an empty stomach

Answer C: Viokase is a pancreatic enzyme that is used to facilitate

digestion. It should be given with meals and snacks, and it works well in foods such as applesauce. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect times to administer this medication.Isoniazid (INH) has been prescribed for a family member exposed to tuberculosis. The nurse is aware that the length of time that the

medication will be taken is:

A.6 months B.3 months C.18 months D.24 months

Answer A: The expected time for contact to tuberculosis is 1 year.

Therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.The client is admitted to the postpartum unit with an order to continue the infusion of Pitocin. Which finding indicates that the Pitocin is having the desired effect?A.The fundus is deviated to the left.B.The fundus is firm and in the midline. 3 / 4

C.The fundus is boggy.D.The fundus is two finger breadths below the umbilicus.

Answer B: Pitocin is used to cause the uterus to contract and decrease

bleeding. A uterus deviated to the left, as stated in answer A, indicates a full bladder. It is not desirable to have a boggy uterus, making answer C incorrect. This lack of muscle tone will increase bleeding. Answer D is incorrect because the position of the uterus is not related to the use of Pitocin.The nurse is teaching a group of new graduates about the safety needs of the client receiving chemotherapy. Before administering chemotherapy,

the nurse should:

A.Administer a bolus of IV fluid B.Administer pain medication C. Administer an antiemetic

• Allow the patient a chance to eat

Answer C: Before chemotherapy, an antiemetic should be given because

most chemotherapy agents cause nausea. It is not necessary to give a bolus of IV fluids, medicate for pain, or allow the client to eat; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.Before administering Methytrexate orally to the client with cancer,

the nurse should check the:

A.IV site B.Electrolytes C.Blood gases

• Vital signs

Answer D: The vital signs should be taken before any chemotherapy

agent. If it is an IV infusion of chemotherapy, the nurse should check the IV site as well. Answers B and C are incorrect because it is not necessary to check the electrolytes or blood gases.Vitamin K (aquamephyton) is administered to a newborn shortly after birth for which of the following reasons?A.To prevent dehydration

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