NR667- CEA FNP Prep Full Practice Exam Latest

NR667- CEA FNP Prep Full Practice Exam Latest Update -325 Questions with 100% Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed A+ Verified by Professor

1st line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder:

*buspar *zoloft *wellbutrin

*remeron - CORRECT ANSWER: zoloft

Rationale: SSRIs increase serotonin levels in the brain, which helps improve mood and reduce anxiety. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter associated with mood regulation and anxiety reduction. By blocking the reabsorption (reuptake) of serotonin into neurons, Zoloft allows more serotonin to be available in the brain, which can help improve mood and reduce anxiety.

A "code blue" is called on your patient in the waiting room of your urgent care. When you arrive, cardiac monitoring is applied and their rhythm appears to be normal sinus rhythm with a rate of 80. On palpation over the carotid artery, you do not feel a pulse.What is the name of this cardiac rhythm?*Idioventricular rhythm *Junctional Tachycardia *Wandering Atrial Pacemaker (WAP) *Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) - CORRECT ANSWER: Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) Rationale: PEA appears as a normal rhythm without a pulse. Idioventricular rhythm is very slow (20-40), Junctional tachycardia and WAP both without pulses are considered PEA also.

A 13 year old female who is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is being treated with ferrous sulfate. Proper treatment typically leads to the resolution of anemia within: 1 / 4

*3 months.*4 weeks.*8 months.

*2 weeks. - CORRECT ANSWER: 3 months.

Rationale: Due to the time it takes for the underlying deficit to be corrected as well as the growth of new red blood cells to mature, 3 months are typically needed to show recovery with treatment for iron deficiency.

A 13-year-old patient returns to the office complaining of intermittent headache for the past couple of years. Which would be the most concerning symptom? - CORRECT

ANSWER: Stiff neck

Rationale: Inflammation of the membranes (meninges) surrounding the brain and spinal cord, often caused by a viral or bacterial infection. This can cause severe headache, stiff neck, fever, and sensitivity to light.

A 14-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell crisis and presents for a follow-up examination after a recent hospitalization. It is most important to continue monitoring growth, development, and: - CORRECT ANSWER: hemoglobin levels.Rationale: Chronic monitoring for patients with sickle cell disease includes monitoring of hemoglobin and hematocrit.

A 16-year-old female in the first month of taking Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 complains of midcycle spotting. She has not missed any doses and uses no other medication. Which of the following is appropriate?*Double dosing for 2 days *Modifying use *Changing to Ortho-Novum 1/35

*Providing reassurance - CORRECT ANSWER: Providing reassurance

Rationale: Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 is a combination oral contraceptive pill that contains varying doses of estrogen and progestin (norethindrone) throughout the cycle. It is a triphasic pill, meaning that the hormone levels change every seven days to mimic the 2 / 4

natural menstrual cycle more closely. Mid-cycle spotting can occur for several reasons while using this contraceptive.

A 19-year-old patient who has used oral contraceptives for 3 years plans to discontinue the pill at the end of her current cycle to become pregnant. Which of the following daily supplements would receive the highest priority?*Ferrous sulfate *Folic acid *Multivitamin

*Calcium carbonate - CORRECT ANSWER: Folic acid

Rationale: Folic acid, a B-vitamin (B9), plays a crucial role in ensuring a healthy pregnancy and reducing the risk of birth defects. Folic acid is crucial in the early development of the neural tube, which forms the brain and spinal cord. Adequate folic acid intake can significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida (incomplete closure of the spinal cord) and anencephaly (underdevelopment of the brain). The neural tube forms very early in pregnancy, often before a woman knows she is pregnant. Therefore, it is essential to have adequate folic acid levels before and during early pregnancy.

A 19-year-old presents with a sore throat and anterior cervical adenopathy. Which causative agent would be suspected?*Epstein-Barr virus *Adenovirus *Haemophilus influenzae

*Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus - CORRECT ANSWER: Group A beta-hemolytic

Streptococcus Rationale: While this patient could easily represent strep or EBV, the differentiating factor is the location of the affected lymphadenopathy. As a generalization, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy is common of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and anterior cervical lymphadenopathy is more common with Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus.

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A 2-day old newborn has purulent discharge of the eyes and erythema. History includes a vaginal birth at term delivered at home. What is the most likely culprit?*Chlamydia trachomatis infection *E-coli infection *Staph infection

*Viral infection - CORRECT ANSWER: Chlamydia trachomatis infection

Rationale: Chlamydia conjunctivitis is usually spread through direct contact with discharge from the eyes or genital secretions of someone infected with Chlamydia trachomatis. It can occur in newborns during childbirth (neonatal conjunctivitis) or in adults through sexual contact (adult inclusion conjunctivitis).Symptoms: The symptoms can include: Redness in the eye(s).Watery or mucopurulent discharge (yellow or green discharge from the eyes).Swelling of the eyelids.Sensitivity to light (photophobia).Itching or burning sensation in the eyes.

A 22-year-old has ASCAS on Pap smear and negative for HPV. The next step is:

*No follow up is needed.*Repeat HPV in 3 months *Colposcopy

*Repeat Pap in 6 months - CORRECT ANSWER: Repeat Pap in 6 months

Rationale: For a 22-year-old with ASC-US on Pap smear and a negative HPV test, the next appropriate step is to repeat the cytology in six months. This approach minimizes unnecessary interventions while ensuring ongoing monitoring for any potential progression of cervical cell abnormalities.

A 24-year-old female reports urinary urgency with suprapubic tenderness relieved by bladder emptying. The patient has been evaluated by urology and urogynecology.Review of laboratory reports reveal negative urinalysis and cultures, negative results for

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