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NURS 2207 ACTUAL EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT

Exam (elaborations) Dec 14, 2025 ★★★★★ (5.0/5)
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NURS 2207 ACTUAL EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT

ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE//ALL YOU NEED TO PASS

NURS 2207 EXAM//GRADED A+

Which autoantigens are responsible for the development of Crohn disease?

  • Crypt epithelial cells
  • Thyroid cell surface
  • Basement membranes of the lungs
  • Basement membranes of the glomeruli - ANSWER-1. Crypt epithelial cells

Rationale:

Crypt epithelial cells are considered the autoantigens responsible for Crohn disease. Thyroid cell surfaces are autoantigens responsible for Hashimoto thyroiditis. The pulmonary and glomerular basement membranes act as autoantigens responsible for Goodpasture syndrome.

Parenteral vitamins are prescribed for the client with Crohn disease. The client asks why the vitamins have to be given intravenously (IV) rather than by mouth. Which rationales will the nurse provide?Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

  • "They provide more rapid action results."
  • "They decrease colon irritability."
  • "Oral vitamins are less effective."
  • "Intestinal absorption may be inadequate."
  • "Allergic responses are less likely to occur." - ANSWER-ANS: 1, 3, 4

Rationale:

Absorption through the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is impaired, and parenteral administration goes directly into the intravascular compartment. Disease of the GI tract hampers absorption. Because the mucosa of the intestinal tract is damaged, its ability to absorb vitamins taken orally is greatly impaired. IV vitamins do not decrease colonic irritability. Route of administration does not affect allergic response.

  • / 4

A client with an acute episode of ulcerative colitis is admitted to the hospital. Blood studies reveal that the chloride level is low. Which would the nurse be prepared to administer to the client? 1. A low-residue diet

  • Intravenous therapy
  • Total parenteral nutrition
  • An oral electrolyte solution - ANSWER-2. Intravenous therapy

Rationale:

Intravenous therapy ensures a well-controlled technique for electrolyte (chloride) replacement.There is no assurance that adequate chloride will be ingested and absorbed via a low-residue diet.Total parenteral nutrition is not necessary at this point, although it may eventually be used. Oral electrolyte solution is not a well-controlled method to correct electrolyte deficiencies.

The nurse is evaluating a client who has been receiving medical intervention for a diagnosis of Crohn disease. Which expected outcome is most important for this client?

  • Performs skin care
  • Tolerates oral fluids
  • Experiences less abdominal cramping
  • Gains a half pound (0.2 kilograms) per week - ANSWER-4. Gains a half pound (0.2 kilograms) per
  • week

Rationale:

Weight loss usually is severe with Crohn disease; therefore, weight gain is a priority. This goal is specific, realistic, and measurable and has a time frame. Although skin care, tolerating oral fluids, and experiencing less abdominal cramping are important, they are not as high a priority as weight gain.

Which intervention would be included in the nursing plan of care to help a 10-year-old girl live with Crohn disease?

  • Recommending several rest periods throughout the day
  • Emphasizing that high-residue foods be included in the diet
  • Assuring her that when she reaches puberty she may discontinue her medication
  • Encouraging her to express feelings while focusing on the ways she is like her friends - ANSWER-
  • Encouraging her to express feelings while focusing on the ways she is like her friends 2 / 4

Rationale:

Focusing on feelings and abilities promotes effective coping and increases self-esteem. Children do not like to be different from their friends. The child will self-limit activity during an exacerbation; at other times the child should not need any more rest than her healthy peers. High-roughage foods are limited because they can trigger intestinal inflammation. Telling the child that she may discontinue the medication once she reaches puberty is false reassurance; there is no time limit as to when or if medications can be discontinued.

Which medication will the nurse question when it is prescribed for a client with acute pancreatitis?

  • Ranitidine
  • Cimetidine
  • Meperidine
  • Promethazine - ANSWER-3. Meperidine

Rationale:

Meperidine should be avoided because accumulation of its metabolites can cause central nervous system irritability and even tonic-clonic seizures (grand mal seizures). Ranitidine is useful in reducing gastric acid stimulation of pancreatic enzymes. Cimetidine is useful in reducing gastric acid stimulation of pancreatic enzymes. Promethazine is useful as an antiemetic for clients with pancreatitis.

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The health care provider's prescriptions include nothing by mouth and total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse explains that the TPN therapy provides which benefit?

  • Is the easiest method for administering needed nutrition
  • Is the safest method for meeting the client's nutritional requirements
  • Will satisfy the client's hunger without the discomfort associated with eating
  • Will meet the client's nutritional needs without causing the discomfort precipitated by eating -
  • ANSWER-4. Will meet the client's nutritional needs without causing the discomfort precipitated by eating

Rationale: 3 / 4

Providing nutrients by the intravenous route eliminates pancreatic stimulation, reducing the pain experienced with pancreatitis. TPN is used to meet the client's needs, not the nurse's needs. TPN creates many safety risks for the client. Hunger can be experienced with TPN therapy.

Which nursing intervention would prevent stimulation of the pancreas in a client with acute pancreatitis?

  • Maintain the gastric pH at a level of less than 3.5.
  • Encourage the resumption of activities of daily living.
  • Administer the histamine H2-receptor antagonist as prescribed.
  • Ensure that the nasogastric tube remains in the fundus of the stomach. - ANSWER-3. Administer
  • the histamine H2-receptor antagonist as prescribed.

Rationale:

The histamine H2-receptor antagonist medication inhibits histamine at H2-receptor sites in parietal cells, thus decreasing gastric secretion and preventing pancreatic stimulation. A lower pH will stimulate pancreatic secretion, which contains bicarbonate ions that neutralize the acid. The client should rest to decrease stimulation of the pancreas. The tube should be positioned nearer the pylorus for the removal of gastric contents.

A client who has a history of alcohol abuse now has recurrent exacerbations of chronic pancreatitis.The nurse asks the client to obtain a stool specimen. When assessing the client's stool, which would the nurse expect to observe?

  • Melena
  • Steatorrhea
  • Hard, dry stool
  • Ribbon-shaped stool - ANSWER-2. Steatorrhea

Rationale:

Decreased secretion of lipase from the pancreas limits fat breakdown in the small intestine, resulting in increased fat content in feces; steatorrhea is soft, frothy, foul-smelling feces. Melena refers to black, tarry stool containing digested blood; melena is caused by upper gastrointestinal bleeding.Hard, dry stool reflects constipation; stools associated with pancreatitis are soft and frothy.Ribbonshaped stool is associated with obstruction of the descending or sigmoid colon.

  • / 4

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Added: Dec 14, 2025
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NURS 2207 ACTUAL EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE//ALL YOU NEED TO PASS NURS 2207 EXAM//GRADED A+ Which autoantigens are responsible for the development of Crohn disease? 1. Cry...

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