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Question 1 Explanation:

NCLEX EXAM Dec 14, 2025 ★★★★★ (5.0/5)
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Question 1

Decreased pain.

Question 1 Explanation:

Furosemide, a loop diuretic, does not alter pain. Option A: Furosemide acts on the kidneys to increase urinary output. Option B: Fluid may move from the periphery, decreasing edema. Option D: Fluid load is reduced, lowering blood pressure.Question 2

Gender.

Question 2 Explanation:

Obesity is an important risk factor for coronary artery disease that can be modified by improved diet and weight loss. Options B, C, and D: Family history of coronary artery disease, male gender, and advancing age increase risk but cannot be modified.Question 3

NCLEX Practice Exam 5 (45 Items)

A nurse is administering IV furosemide to a patient admitted with congestive heart failure. After the infusion, which of the following symptoms is NOT expected?

Decreased edema.

Decreased blood pressure.

There are a number of risk factors associated with coronary artery disease. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor?

Heredity.

Age.

Obesity.

Increased urinary output.

History of prior myocardial infarction.

Question 3 Explanation:

A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to tPA because it may increase the risk of bleeding.TPA acts by dissolving the clot blocking the coronary artery and works best when administered within 6 hours of onset of symptoms. Option C: Prior MI is not a contraindication to tPA. Option D: Patients receiving tPA should be observed for changes in blood pressure, as tPA may cause hypotension.Question 4

Prevents DVT (deep vein thrombosis).

Question 4 Explanation:

Exercise is important for all hospitalized patients to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Muscular contraction promotes venous return and prevents hemostasis in the lower extremities. Options A, B, and D: This exercise is not sufficiently vigorous to increase physical fitness, nor is it intended to prevent bedsores or constipation.Question 5

Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is considered for treatment of a patient who arrives in the emergency department following onset of symptoms of myocardial infarction. Which of the following is a contraindication for treatment with t-PA?

History of cerebral hemorrhage.

Hypertension.

Following myocardial infarction, a hospitalized patient is encouraged to practice frequent leg exercises and ambulate in the hallway as directed by his physician. Which of the following choices reflects the purpose of exercise for this patient?

Prevents bedsores.

Prevent constipations.

A patient arrives in the emergency department with symptoms of myocardial infarction, progressing to cardiogenic shock. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit with cardiogenic shock?

Increases fitness and prevents future heart attacks.

Worsening chest pain that began earlier in the evening.

Bounding pulse.

Question 5 Explanation:

Cardiogenic shock severely impairs the pumping function of the heart muscle, causing diminished blood flow to the organs of the body. This results in diminished brain function and confusion, as well as hypotension, tachycardia, and weak pulse. Cardiogenic shock is a serious complication of myocardial infarction with a high mortality rate.Question 6

Send the patient for a chest x-ray.

Question 6 Explanation:

A patient with congestive heart failure and dyspnea may have pulmonary edema, which can cause severe hypertension. Therefore, taking the patient's blood pressure should be the first action. Option A: Lying flat on the exam table would likely worsen the dyspnea, and the patient may not tolerate it. Option B: Blood draws for chemistry and ABG will be required, but not prior to the blood pressure assessment.Question 7

Bradycardia.

Confusion.

A patient with a history of congestive heart failure arrives at the clinic complaining of dyspnea. Which of the following actions is the first the nurse should perform?

Draw blood for chemistry panel and arterial blood gas (ABG).

Check blood pressure.

A clinic patient has recently been prescribed nitroglycerin for treatment of angina. He calls the nurse complaining of frequent headaches. Which of the following responses to the patient is correct?

“Stop taking the nitroglycerin and see if the headaches improve.”

Hypertension.

Ask the patient to lie down on the exam table.

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Category: NCLEX EXAM
Added: Dec 14, 2025
Description:

Question 1 Decreased pain. Question 1 Explanation: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, does not alter pain. Option A: Furosemide acts on the kidneys to increase urinary output. Option B: Fluid may move fr...

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