RN HESI Exit Exam Version 1 V1 20252026

RN HESI Exit Exam Version 1 (V1) | 2025–2026 Edition All 160 Questions & Correct Answers | Verified and Updated | A+ Graded | NCLEX- Ready Prep Introduction This comprehensive resource includes all 160 updated and verified questions from the 2025– 2026 RN HESI Exit Exam Version 1 (V1). Fully aligned with current NCLEX-RN testing standards, this guide is designed to strengthen clinical reasoning, critical thinking, and exam preparedness for nursing graduates. Every question is matched with a correct answer and clinical rationale for complex or high-risk topics to support high-yield retention and test success.

Topics Covered:

• Management of Care & Delegation • Pharmacology & Medication Administration • Health Promotion & Disease Prevention • Medical-Surgical Nursing (Cardiac, Neuro, Respiratory, etc.) • Maternal-Newborn & Women’s Health • Pediatric Nursing • Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing • Emergency, Critical Care, and End-of-Life • Evidence-Based Practice & Nursing Ethics All correct answers are clearly indicated in bold and green. Rationales are included for complex or high-risk clinical topics to help reinforce critical decision-making skills for NCLEX success.Exam Questions and Answers Question 1 Question: A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is appropriate to delegate?

• Administering IV medication
• Taking vital signs
• Developing a care plan
• Performing a sterile dressing change

Rationale: Taking vital signs is within the UAP’s scope, while the other tasks require RN licensure.Question 2 Question: Which medication should a nurse administer first to a patient with anaphylaxis?

• Diphenhydramine
• Epinephrine
• Prednisone
• Albuterol

Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse airway constriction and shock. 1 / 3

Question 3 Question: What is the most effective way to prevent hospital-acquired infections?

• Administering prophylactic antibiotics
• Proper hand hygiene
• Isolating all patients
• Using sterile gloves for all procedures

Answer: Hand hygiene is the most effective infection control measure.

Question 4 Question: A patient with chest pain has an ECG showing ST elevation. What is the priority action?

• Administer oxygen at 2 L/min
• Notify the physician immediately
• Obtain a full set of vital signs
• Administer nitroglycerin sublingually

Rationale: ST elevation indicates acute myocardial infarction, requiring immediate physician intervention.Question 5 Question: A postpartum patient reports heavy vaginal bleeding. What is the first action?

• Administer oxytocin
• Assess the uterus for firmness
• Increase IV fluids
• Prepare for a blood transfusion

Rationale: Assessing for uterine atony is critical to identify the cause of postpartum hemorrhage.Question 6 Question: A 5-year-old with asthma is wheezing. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• Epinephrine
• Albuterol
• Prednisone
• Montelukast

Answer: Albuterol is a fast-acting bronchodilator for acute asthma symptoms.

Question 7 Question: A patient with schizophrenia reports hearing voices. What is the nurse’s best response?

• “Those voices aren’t real.”
• “Tell me more about what you’re hearing.”
• “You need to ignore them.”
• “I’ll get you medication to stop that.”

Rationale: Exploring hallucinations validates the patient’s experience and aids assessment.Question 8 Question: A patient in the ICU has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 7. What does this indicate?

• Full consciousness
• Severe neurological impairment 2 / 3

• Mild confusion
• Normal neurological status

Rationale: A GCS score of 7 indicates a coma, requiring urgent monitoring.

Question 9

Question: Which ethical principle guides informed consent?

• Beneficence
• Autonomy
• Justice
• Nonmaleficence

Answer: Autonomy respects the patient’s right to make informed decisions.

Question 10 Question: A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What should the nurse monitor?

• Blood glucose
• Potassium levels
• Liver enzymes
• Platelet count

Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, requiring electrolyte monitoring.

Question 11 Question: A nurse is teaching a patient about colorectal cancer screening. At what age should screening begin for average-risk individuals?

• 30
• 45
• 50
• 60

Answer: Screening begins at age 45 per current guidelines.

Question 12

Question: A patient with COPD has an SpO2 of 88%. What is the priority action?

• Administer a bronchodilator
• Increase oxygen to maintain SpO2 ≥ 90%
• Encourage deep breathing
• Position the patient supine

Rationale: Maintaining SpO2 ≥ 90% prevents hypoxia in COPD patients.

Question 13 Question: A pregnant patient at 32 weeks reports decreased fetal movement. What is the priority action?

• Administer tocolytics
• Perform a non-stress test
• Increase IV fluids
• Prepare for immediate delivery

Rationale: A non-stress test assesses fetal well-being in response to decreased movement.Question 14 Question: A 10-year-old with type 1 diabetes has a blood glucose of 50 mg/dL. What is the first action?

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