CAT Exam Practice Collection

CAT Exam Practice Collection Leave the first rating Students also studied Terms in this set (113) Science MedicinePaediatrics Save

NCLEX EXAM PREVIEW

110 terms kandykat1012Preview HESI RN EXIT Exam Questions and V...150 terms Benard_Ndungu9 Preview CAT exam 75 terms Good1990-Preview

HESI: C

107 term racc The nurse provides care for a group of clients. Which condition puts the client at risk for metabolic acidosis?(Select all that apply.)

• Pneumonia. 2. Diabetes mellitus.3. Asthma.4. Renal

failure.5. Malnourishment.The correct answer is 2, 4, 5 . You answered 2, 4, 5.1) Pneumonia is a respiratory problem, not a metabolic problem.2) CORRECT — Diabetes mellitus leads to metabolic acidosis because of the increasing acids in the body.3) Asthma is a respiratory problem, not a metabolic one.4) CORRECT — Renal failure leads to metabolic acidosis because of the increasing acids in the body.5) CORRECT — Malnourishment leads to metabolic acidosis because of the increasing acids in the body.The nurse provides care for four clients. Which client will benefit the most from a multidisciplinary conference?

• A 3-month-old client with intussusception who is

vomiting, has colicky abdominal pain, and is having jelly- like stools.2. A 2-month-old client with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), who is wheezing and has moderate subcostal retractions and copious nasal discharge.3. A 3- day-old client with developmental dysplasia of the hip, who has unequal leg length, limited abduction of the left hip, and asymmetry of the gluteal folds.4. A 2-day-old client with body tremors and hyperirritability, who has intermittent episodes of sneezing and whose mother abused substances while pregnant.The correct answer is 4 . You answered 4.1) The infant has signs that are characteristic of intussusception. There is no need for a multidisciplinary conference.2) This infant has signs that are characteristic of RSV. There is no need for a multidisciplinary conference.3) This infant has signs that are characteristic of developmental dysplasia of the hip. There is no need for a multidisciplinary conference.4) CORRECT - This newborn is experiencing neonatal withdrawal from prenatal exposure to drugs while in utero. Since these drugs crossed the placenta, the infant suffers from withdrawal symptoms after birth and may experience long- term developmental and neurological deficits. Also, this newborn is at risk for abuse from the mother, as these infants are very difficult to console. A multidisciplinary conference including a social worker, a home health nurse, a nutritionist, and a mental health counselor could greatly benefit both the mother and newborn.

The nurse provides care to a client who reports "ringing in the ears" and dizziness. Which medication in the client's history will the nurse suspect as causing this client's symptoms?

• Valsartan.2. Amikacin.3. Spironolactone.4. Cinacalcet

hydrochloride.The correct answer is 2 . You answered 3.1) Valsartan, an angiotensin antagonist, can cause dizziness. However, it does not affect hearing.2) CORRECT - Amikacin is an aminoglycoside that can cause ototoxicity.Manifestations of ototoxicity include tinnitus and vertigo.3) Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and does not cause ototoxicity.4) Cinacalcet hydrochloride, a calcium receptor antagonist, can cause dizziness.However, it does not affect hearing.The nurse assesses a client's sleep patterns. The nurse suspects that the client has sleep apnea. Which risk factors should the nurse identify as contributing to sleep apnea? (Select all that apply.)

• Obesity.2. Short neck.3. Hypertension.4. Diabetes.5.

Smoking.The correct answer is 1, 2, 5 . You answered 1, 2, 4.1) CORRECT - Obesity increases the risk of sleep apnea by increasing airway obstruction when sleeping from excessive tissue around the neck.2) CORRECT - A short neck increases the risk of sleep apnea by increasing airway obstruction when sleeping from the excessive tissue around the neck.3) Hypertension is not a risk factor, but can result from untreated sleep apnea.4) Diabetes is not a risk factor for sleep apnea.5) CORRECT - Smoking increases the risk of sleep apnea by causing edema in the airway, increasing the risk of airway obstruction.The nurse provides care to a client requiring a sterile dressing change. Which action will the nurse take when preparing the sterile field?

• Place sterile items within 2.5 cm (1 in.) of the edge of

the sterile field.2. Hold the bottle of sterile solution with the label facing down.3. Wear sterile gloves when opening sterile gauze.4. Reach over the sterile pack to open the edges.The correct answer is 1 . You answered 1.1) CORRECT — The outer 2.5 cm (1 in.) of the sterile field is not considered to be sterile. Therefore, the nurse should place all sterile items within 2.5 cm (1 in.) of the edge of the sterile field to ensure all items remain sterile.2) The nurse should hold the bottle of sterile solution at a slight angle so that the label is facing up, away from the field. That way, if any of the solution drips onto the outside of the bottle, it does not damage the label and make it illegible.3) Wearing sterile gloves when adding sterile dressings to the field will contaminate the gloves as the outer wrappers are not sterile. Instead, the nurse should open the packages by holding the wrapper in the nondominant hand and peeling the wrapper open to drop the dressing carefully onto the field.4) The nurse should reach around the sterile pack, pinch the flap with the thumb and index finger, and open the top flap away from the body to prevent contaminating the inside of the package.The nurse provides care for a client in the second trimester of pregnancy. Which finding does the nurse attribute to the normal increase in blood volume during pregnancy?

• Increase in the respiratory rate.2. Elevation in heart rate

of 15 beats per minute (bpm).3. Increase in blood pressure of 20 points.4. Decrease in mean arterial pressure (MAP).The correct answer is 2 . You answered 2.1) Deeper breaths, not quicker breaths, overcome the expanding uterus and the upward pressure on the diaphragm.2) CORRECT — Cardiac output increases as more blood is pumped from the heart with each contraction and the pulse increases by 10 to 15 bpm.3) Blood pressure does not increase with higher blood volume, rather, resistance to blood flow through vessels decreases.4) A decreased MAP indicates decreased organ perfusion.The nurse who is a practicing Muslim requests to wear a hijab while working. Which action will the nurse manager take next?

• Decline the request.2. Make the accommodation.3.

Advocate for modification of the organization's dress code.4. Review the organization's dress code policy.The correct answer is 4 . You answered 3.1) Declining the request should not be done without reviewing the dress code policy.2) Making the accommodation should not be done without reviewing the dress code policy.3) The organization's policy should be reviewed prior to advocating for change, because the accommodation may already be included in the policy.4) CORRECT - Reviewing the dress code policy should take place on a regular basis, from a cultural standpoint, to accommodate the various traditional dress needs of employee groups. In addition, the accommodation for wearing the requested clothing may already be covered in the dress code.

The nurse instructs a client about a low-fat, high-fiber diet. Which food does the client chose that best indicates an understanding of the low-fat, high-fiber diet?

• Garden salad with hard-boiled eggs and Italian

dressing.2. Vegetable stock soup with vegetables served with oat bread.3. Tuna salad sandwich with celery on whole wheat bread.4. Broiled chicken stuffed with chopped apples and walnuts.The correct answer is 2 . You answered 2.1) The salad is low-fat and high fiber, but the eggs and dressing are high in fat.2) CORRECT — The soup is low-fat because it is made with vegetable stock rather than meat stock. The bread, vegetables, and legumes are high-fiber.3) The mayonnaise in the tuna salad is high-fat, and the bread has some fiber.4) The nuts are high-fat, even though they are fiber-rich.The nurse delegates care of a client at risk for venous thromboembolism to the LPN/LVN. Which action by the LPN/LVN causes the nurse to intervene? (Select all that apply.)

• Reinforce the need to flex and extend legs and feet

every 2 hours with the client.2. Apply sequential compression devices to the client.3. Administer enoxaparin 80 mg subcutaneously to the client. 4. Teach the client the symptoms of pulmonary embolism.5.Administer oral norgestimate-ethinyl estradiol to the client.The correct answer is 4, 5 . You answered 1, 2, 4.1) It is within the LPN/LVN's scope of practice to reinforce teaching.2) It is within the LPN/LVN's scope of practice to apply sequential compression devices.3) Subcutaneous medication administration is within the LPN/LVN's scope of practice.4) CORRECT - The nurse should perform initial teaching regarding symptoms of a pulmonary embolism.5) CORRECT - Although medication administration is within the LPN/LVN's scope of practice, the nurse should intervene because this medication increases the risk of venous thromboembolism.The nurse evaluates a client with eye ptosis and muscle weakness. Which medication will the nurse anticipate being prescribed as a test for this client?

• Quinidine.2. Phenytoin.3. Procainamide.4. Edrophonium

chloride.The correct answer is 4 . You answered 2.1) Quinidine can aggravate myasthenia gravis.2) Phenytoin can aggravate myasthenia gravis.3) Procainamide can aggravate myasthenia gravis.4) CORRECT - The client is demonstrating manifestations of myasthenia gravis.Edrophonium chloride is used to test for improved muscle contractility in a client exhibiting manifestations of myasthenia gravis.The nurse provides care for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse determines that formoterol is effective if which finding is noted on assessment? (Select all that apply.)

• The client's PaO2 of 88 mm Hg.2. The client is alert and

oriented X 4.3. The client experiences a baseline weight loss of 12%.4. The client's arterial PaCO2 of 52 mm Hg.5.The client's pH is 7.33.The correct answer is 1, 2 . You answered 1, 2, 3.1) CORRECT - A PaO2 of 88 mm Hg is within normal range of 85 to 95 mm Hg and indicates improved oxygenation. Formoterol is a long-acting bronchodilator.2) CORRECT—Improvement in cognitive status (alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation) indicates improved oxygenation.3) Weight loss is caused by COPD. It is not an effect of formoterol.4) A diagnosis of COPD results in the high PaCO2 level of 52 mm Hg, which is significantly elevated above normal range of 35 to 45 mm Hg. This is not a therapeutic effect of formoterol.5) A diagnosis of COPD results in decreased pH below normal range of 7.35 to 7.45, which is indicative of respiratory acidosis due to air-trapping. This is not a therapeutic effect of formoterol.The nurse provides care for a post-operative client.Which conditions does early ambulation after surgery help prevent? (Select all that apply.)

• Dehiscence.2. Thromboembolism.3. Atelectasis.4.

Paralytic ileus.5. Pressure decubiti.The correct answer is 2, 3, 4, 5 . You answered 1, 2, 4, 5.1) There is no evidence that ambulation reduces the risk of wound separation.2) CORRECT - Ambulation reduces the risk of thromboembolism by increasing venous blood flow.3) CORRECT - Ambulation reduces the risk of atelectasis by increasing the mobilization and expectoration of mucus.4) CORRECT - Ambulation reduces the risk of paralytic ileus and promotes peristalsis.5) CORRECT - Ambulation reduces the risk of pressure decubiti by reducing the time in bed and relieving pressure on bony prominences.

Which statement is appropriate for the professional development educator to include in a discussion of medical asepsis with a group of new clinical employees?(Select all that apply.)

• "It is necessary to keep the door closed when caring for

a client on airborne precautions."2. "I need to wear gloves when taking the blood pressure of a client on contact precautions."3. "I should put on a mask when taking the temperature of a client on contact precautions."4. "It is necessary to use disposable dishes and utensils for a client on droplet precautions."5. "A surgical mask is required when working within 3 feet of client on droplet precautions." The correct answer is 1, 2, 5 . You answered 1, 2, 4, 5.1) CORRECT — This is an appropriate statement for the professional development educator to include when teaching new clinical staff in regard to medical asepsis.It is necessary to keep the door closed when caring for a client on airborne precautions.2) CORRECT — This is an appropriate statement for the professional development educator to include when teaching new clinical staff in regard to medical asepsis.Gloves are required when taking the blood pressure of a client on contact precautions.3) A mask is not needed when taking the temperature of a client on contact precautions.4) Disposable dishes and utensils are not needed for a client on droplet precautions.5) CORRECT — This is an appropriate statement for the professional development educator to include when teaching new clinical staff in regard to medical asepsis.A surgical mask is required when working within 3 feet of client on droplet precautions.The nurse provides home care to a client receiving intravenous therapy and enteral nutrition. Which care objective will the nurse identify as a priority for this client?

• Screening.2. Counseling.3. Education.4. Case

management.The correct answer is 3 . You answered 1.1) Screening is preventive care.2) Counseling is assisting the client and family to identify strategies and resources to improve the client's condition or the care situation.3) CORRECT — Health promotion and education are the primary objectives of home care, yet at present most clients receive home care because they also need nursing care.4) Case management is observing and examining the client to determine what the health status is, what the care needs are, and what resources are available to meet those needs.The hospice client receives 10 mg of oral oxycodone every 4 hours around the clock for 1 week. The client has become unable to swallow and exhibits moderate restlessness. Which action does the nurse take?

• Hold the oxycodone, noting in the client's record the

inability to swallow.2. Ask the health care provider (HCP) to prescribe an alternative pain medication.3. Dissolve the oxycodone in water and deliver it as a sublingual dose.4. Discontinue the oxycodone and administer a reversal agent for the overdose.The correct answer is 2 . You answered 4.1) Withholding a narcotic after a client receives consistent doses may increase discomfort. This action is inappropriate for the hospice client who is exhibiting signs of discomfort, without an alternative medication for discomfort.2) CORRECT — The HCP would prescribe an equal analgesic dose of narcotic and a new route of administration.3) A change in route requires HCP permission, and a sublingual method could cause aspiration due to the client's difficulty in swallowing.4) The client actively dying needs relief from the suffering of pain. A reversal agent is not appropriate.The nurse provides care for a pediatric client experiencing an acute episode of croup. It is most important for the nurse to assess the client for which acid-base imbalance?

• Respiratory alkalosis.2. Respiratory acidosis.3. Metabolic

alkalosis.4. Metabolic acidosis.The correct answer is 2 . You answered 2.1) Respiratory alkalosis is caused by decreased carbon dioxide in the blood. A pediatric client experiencing an acute episode of croup causes carbon dioxide retention.2) CORRECT - Respiratory acidosis is caused by increased carbon dioxide in the blood. The pediatric client experiencing an acute episode of croup has narrowed airways, making it difficult to breathe; thereby, this makes it difficult to eliminate carbon dioxide.3) Metabolic alkalosis is caused by a decrease in acid in the blood. This finding is not related to croup.4) Metabolic acidosis is caused by an increase in acid in the blood. This finding is not related to croup.