Ch. 12 NCLEX questions

Ch. 12 NCLEX questions (1 review) Terms in this set (15) Save The nurse is preparing to discharge a 30-year-old woman who has experienced a miscarriage at 10 weeks of gestation. Which statement by the woman would indicate a correct understanding of the discharge instructions?

• "I will not experience mood swings

since I was only at 10 weeks of gestation."

• "I will avoid sexual intercourse for
• weeks and pregnancy for 6

months."

• "I should eat foods that are high in

iron and protein to help my body heal."

• "I should expect the bleeding to

be heavy and bright red for at least 1 week."

• "I should eat foods that are high in iron and

protein to help my body heal."

A woman with severe preeclampsia is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. The nurse becomes concerned after assessment when

the woman exhibits:

• a sleepy, sedated affect.
• a respiratory rate of 10

breaths/min.

• deep tendon reflexes of 2+.
• absent ankle clonus
• a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. (bc mag

sulfate is a CNS depressant) A woman with severe preeclampsia is being treated with an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. This treatment is

considered successful if:

• blood pressure is reduced to

prepregnant baseline. Incorrect

• seizures do not occur.
• deep tendon reflexes become

hypotonic.

• diuresis reduces fluid retention.
• seizures do not occur.

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calcium gluconate should always be on hand bc it is the anitdote. hypotonia is hypermag side effect.

A woman with severe preeclampsia has been receiving magnesium sulfate by IV infusion for 8 hours. The nurse assesses the woman and

documents the following findings:

temperature 37.1° C, pulse rate 96 beats/min, respiratory rate 24 breaths/min, blood pressure 155/112 mm Hg, 3+ deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The nurse calls the physician, anticipating an order

for:

• hydralazine.
• magnesium sulfate bolus c.

diazepam.

• calcium gluconate.
• hydralazine (an antihypertensive)

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• bolus only if showing increasing signs of CNS

irritability like clonus or if eclampsia develops The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae

(as opposed to placenta previa) is:

• bleeding.
• intense abdominal pain.
• uterine activity.
• cramping.
• intense abdominal pain.

placenta previa = NO pain abruptio placentae = PAIN

A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit.She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes; dark red vaginal bleeding; and a tense, painful abdomen. The

nurse suspects the onset of:

• eclamptic seizure.
• rupture of the uterus.
• placenta previa.
• placental abruption
• placental abruption

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• presents as bright red, painless vaginal bleeding

In caring for the woman with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), what order should the nurse anticipate?Administration of blood Correct Preparation of the woman for invasive hemodynamic monitoring Incorrect Restriction of intravascular fluids Administration of steroids In caring for the woman with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), what order should the nurse anticipate?Administration of blood Correct Preparation of the woman for invasive hemodynamic monitoring Incorrect Restriction of intravascular fluids Administration of steroids