Practice Perfusion NCLEX Questions

Practice Perfusion NCLEX Questions ScienceMedicineCardiology dawn_h_carroll Save

NCLEX style questions: Perfusion

20 terms hannahk0729Preview

Chapter 18: Perfusion (Nursing Conc...

98 terms slambert183Preview Perfusion Practice Questions 41 terms Hanhann98Preview Fluid a 33 terms Ale The nurse has completed an assessment on a client with a decreased cardiac output. Which findings should receive highest priority?

• BP 110/62, atrial fibrillation with HR 82, bibasilar crackles
• Confusion, urine output 15mL over the last 2 hours, orthopnea.
• SpO2 92 on 2 liters nasal cannula, respirations 20, 1+ edema of lower extremities.
• Weight gain of 1kg in 3 days, BP 130/80, mild dyspnea with exercise.
• A low urine output and confusion are signs of decreased tissue perfusion. Orthopnea is a sign of left-sided heart failure. Crackles, edema and

weight gain should be monitored closely, but the levels are not as high a priority. With atrial fibrillation there is a loss of atrial kick, but the blood pressure and heart rate are stable Which of the following is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?

• Increased blood pressure
• Increased urine output
• Decreased pain
• Decreased premature ventricular contractions
• Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts to increase urine output. Furosemide does not increase blood pressure, decrease pain, or decrease

arrhythmias The nurse is assessing clients at a health fair. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?

• a 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
• a 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and cholesterol level of 158
• A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 who takes atorvastatin (Lipitor)
• A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188
• The woman who is 65-years-old, over weight and has an elevated LDL is at greatest risk. Total cholesterol >200, LDL >100, HDL <40 in men,

HDL <50 in women, men 45-years and older, women 55-years and older, smoking and obesity increase the risk of CAD. Atorvastatin is a medication to reduce LDL and decrease risk of CAD. The combination of postmenopausal, obesity and high LDL cholesterol places this client at greatest risk.

A 58-year-old female with a family history of CAD is being seen for her annual physical exam. Fasting lab test results include: Total cholesterol 198; LDL cholesterol 120; HDL cholesterol 58; Triglycerides 148; Blood sugar 102; and C-reactive protein (CRP) 4.2. The health care provider informs the client that she will be started on a statin medication and aspirin. The client asks the nurse why she needs to take these medications.Which is the best response by the nurse?

• "The labs indicate severe hyperlipidemia and the medications will lower your LDL, along with a low-fat diet."
• "The triglycerides are elevated and will not return to normal without these medications."
• "The CRP is elevated indicating inflammation seen in cardiovascular disease, which can be lowered by the medications ordered."
• "The medications are not indicated since your lab values are all normal."
• CRP is a marker of inflammation and is elevated in the presence of cardiovascular disease. The high sensitivity CRP (hs-CRP) is the blood test

for greater accuracy in measuring the CRP to evaluate cardiovascular risk. The family history, post-menopausal age, LDL above optimum levels and elevated CRP place the client at risk of CAD. Statin medications can decrease LDL, whereas statins and aspirin can reduce CRP and decrease the risk of MI and stroke.An older, sedentary adult may not respond to emotional or physical stress as well as a younger individual because of:

• Left ventricular atrophy
• Irregular heartbeats
• Peripheral vascular occlusion
• Pacemaker placement
• In older adults who are less active and do not exercise the heart muscle, atrophy can result. Disuse or deconditioning can lead to abnormal

changes in the myocardium of the older adult. As a result, under sudden emotional or physical stress, the left ventricle is less able to respond to the increased demands on the myocardial muscle. Decreased cardiac output, cardiac hypertrophy, and heart failure are examples of the chronic conditions that may develop in response to inactivity, rather than in response to the aging process. Irregular heartbeats are generally not associated with an older sedentary adult's lifestyle. Peripheral vascular occlusion or pacemaker placement should not affect response to stress.A client with a diagnosis of cardiac dysrhythmias and a history of type I diabetes mellitus is placed on propranolol therapy. The client asks the nurse if the drug will affect insulin needs. The best response by the nurse would be that:

• The drug will have no effect on insulin needs.
• The drug might cause hypoglycemia.
• The drug could cause hyperglycemia.
• The client should ask the physician this question.
• The drug might cause hypoglycemia.

There is increased incidence of hypoglycemia with type I diabetes mellitus, because propranolol can inhibit glycogenolysis.When planning care for a client receiving treatment for cardiac dysrhythmias, an appropriate client outcome would be:

• The client will avoid use of caffeine during therapy.
• The client will maintain heart rate below 60 beats per minute.
• The client will limit fluid intake to 1000 ml/day.
• The client will limit cigarettes to 15/day.
• The client will avoid use of caffeine during therapy.

Causes of dysrhythmias include electrolyte imbalance, hyperthyroidism, anxiety, caffeine ingestion, and tobacco use. The client should be taught to avoid caffeine and tobacco.

A client with a first-degree heart block has an electrocardiogram (ECG) taken during an episode of chest pain. The nurse knows that which ECG finding would be an indication of first-degree heart block?

• Presence of Q waves
• Tall, peaked T waves
• Prolonged PR interval
• Widened QRS complex
• Prolonged PR interval

A nurse who is auscultating a 56-year-old client's apical heart rate before administering digoxin (Lanoxin) notes that the heart rate is 52 beats/min. The nurse should make which interpretation about this information?

• Normal, because of the client's age
• Abnormal, requiring further assessment
• Normal, as a result of the effects of digoxin
• Normal, because this is the reason the client is receiving digoxin
• Abnormal, requiring further assessment

Which laboratory test results may be associated with peaked or tall, tented T waves on a client's electrocardiogram (ECG)?

• Chloride level of 98 mEq/L
• Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• Potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L
• Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
• Potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L

The nurse is assessing an electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm strip for a client. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.14 second, and the QRS complexes measure 0.08 second. The overall heart rate is 82 beats/min. The nurse interprets the cardiac rhythm to be which rhythm?

• Sinus bradycardia
• Sick sinus syndrome
• Normal sinus rhythm
• First-degree heart block
• Normal sinus rhythm

The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that the rhythm suddenly changes. No P waves or QRS complexes are seen; instead, the monitor screen shows an irregular wavy line. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing which rhythm?

• Sinus tachycardia
• Ventricular fibrillation
• Ventricular tachycardia
• Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
• Ventricular fibrillation

A client has developed uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 150 beats/min. What manifestation should the nurse observe for when performing the client's focused assessment?

• Flat neck veins
• Nausea and vomiting
• Hypotension and dizziness
• Clubbed fingertips and headache
• Hypotension and dizziness

Which client assessment would assist the nurse in evaluating therapeutic effects of a calcium channel blocker?

• Client states that she has no chest pain.
• Client states that the swelling in her feet is reduced.
• Client states the she does not feel dizzy.
• Client states that she feels stronger.

a.The workload in the heart should be decreased with the vasodilatation from the calcium channel blocker. With less strain, the client should have fewer incidences of angina as afterload is decreased.A client taking spironolactone (Aldactone) [potassium-sparing diuretic] has been taught about the therapy. Which menu selection indicates that the client understands teaching related to this medication?

• Apricots
• Bananas
• Fish
• Strawberries

c.Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that could potentially cause hyperkalemia. Fish is an appropriate dietary choice, because it is low in potassium. The other foods are high in potassium.A nurse is caring for a client who is taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor and develops a dry, nonproductive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?

• Call the health care provider to switch the medication.
• Assess the client for other symptoms of upper respiratory infection.
• Instruct the client to take antitussive medication until the symptoms subside.
• Tell the client that the cough will subside in a few days.

a.Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, frequently causing a nonproductive cough. Angiotensin receptor blocking agents do not block this breakdown, thus minimizing this annoying side effect. The client should be switched to a different medication if the side effect cannot be tolerated.